Wednesday, October 26, 2011

INDIAN GEOGRAPHY MCQs


World Geography

1. What mountains traditionally serve a boundary separating Europe from Asia ?
A. The Alps
B. The Himalayas
C. The Caucasus
D. The Urals

2. In which continent some of its parts are over1500 miles from the sea and in which the hottest as well as the coldest climates of the world are to be found?
A. Asia
B. Europe
C. America
D. Australia

3. The continent whose southern tip lies closest to Antarctica is:
A. South America
B. Africa
C. Australia
D. Asia

4. The continent of Africa is divided into two parts by the:
A. Sahara Desert
B. Atlas Mountains
C. Congo River
D. Caucasus

5. Of the following, the country located entirely to the north of the Equator is:
A. Columbia
B. Ecuador
C. Bolivia
D. Venezuela

6. The South American country that borders every other country on that continent except Chile and Ecuador is:
A. Brazil
B. Argentina
C. Peru
D. Venezuela

7. Which of the following towns is situated at a higher altitude ?
A. Lhasa
B. Kathmandu
C. Gartole
D. Thimpu

8. There is a country which has an exceptionally long coast bordered by Soviet Union, Sweden and Finland, being the fifth largest country in Europe, and having the largest number of islands along its coast line, the country is:
A. Sweden
B. Norway
C. Poland
D. Denmark

9. New Zealand is:
A. a large ocean bay
B. an archipelago
C. two big islands : North Island, South Island separated by Cook Strait and several small islands
D. a large island

10. The island that is nearly an equilateral triangle (and is the newest province of Canada) with each side about 320 miles long and is heavily forested is:
A. Newfoundland
B. Alberta
C. Nova Scotia
D. Yukon Territory

11. The country more than half of which lies below sea level and which is the most densely populated countries in the world is :
A. Sweden
B. Norway
C. Netherlands
D. Kenya

12.Durand Line is the boundary of the two countries namely:
A. India and Pakistan
B. Pakistan and Afghanistan
C. Nepal and India
D. Nepal and China

13. 17th Parallel divides:
A. India and Pakistan
B. South and North America
C. North and South Korea
D. North and South Vietnam

14. The boundary line between India and Pakistan on their attaining independence in1947 is called:
A. Radcliff Line
B. Durand Line
C. McMahon Line
D. Maginot Line

15. Which line demarcates the boundary between India and China?
A. McMahon
C. Durand
B. Radcliffe
D. Mountbatten

16. The 38th parallel separates:
A. South Korea and North Korea
B. East Germany and West Germany
C. North Vietnam and South Vietnam
D. USA and Canada

17. A feature of the Mediterranean climate is:
A. frequent rain and fog
B. a long growing season
C. hillside farming
D. savanna vegetation

18. The deepest known point of the oceans is found in the:
A. Atlantic Ocean
B. Pacific Ocean
C. North sea
D. Panama Canal.

19. Which of the following is good evidence for concluding that glaciers once covered Canada?
A. Rocks containing melted ice have been found through out Canada
B. Radioactive decay of uranium in Canadian rocks has been measured
C. Scratches on surface rocks in Canada look like scratches made by known glaciers
D. Only glaciers could have formed the high Canadian mountains

20. Which one of the following canals connects Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean?
A. Suez canal
B. Panama canal
C. Kiel canal
D. None of the above

21. Grenada lies in the:
A. Caspian Sea
B. Indian Ocean
C. Caribbean
D. Pacific Ocean

22. New Moore Island is situated in the:
A. Bay of Bengal
B. Indian Ocean
C. Palk Strait
D. Arabian Sea

23. Falkland Islands are in:
A. Pacific
B. Antarctica
C. South Atlantic
D. North Atlantic

24. The interior regions of Eurasia have a large number of inland seas or lakes. Which one of the following touches the boundary of Iran?
A. Aral Sea
B. Lake-Balkash
C. Lake-Baikal
D. Caspian Sea

25. ‘Bermuda Triangle’ also known as “graveyard of ships”, is situated in:
A. Adriatic Sea
B. Beaufort Sea
C. Bering Sea
D. Sargaso Sea

26. The famous American river Mississippi flows into the Gulf known as :
A. the Gulf of Mexico
B. the Gulf of St Lawrence
C. the Gulf of Ob
D. None of these

27. The northern part of Europe is called:
A. Alpine region
B. Scandinavia
C. Benelux
D. New Zealand

28. Which Australian state is an island?
A. Victoria
B. Western Australia
C. Queensland
D. Tasmania

29. Which one of these countries has no coastline?
A. China
B. Hungary
C. Spain
D. Sweden

30 Which country is nearest to the South Pole?
A. Australia
B. New Zealand
C. Chile
D. South Africa

31. The basin of which one of the following rivers is the widest?
A. Amazon
B. Nile
C. Congo
D. Volga

32. Greenwich Mean Time is the local time of:
A. 180° longitude
B. 80° W longitude
C. 0° longitude
D. 80° E longitude

33. London is located at 0°, while Baghdad at 45° east. If a news is broadcast from London at 10 AM, at what time it will be heard at Baghdad?
A. 11.30 AM
B. 2.00 PM
C. 1.00 PM
D. 12.30 PM

34. The International Date Line is closest to which one of the following ?
A. Japan
B. Greenwich, England
C. Canary Islands
D. Aleutian Islands

35. If Amsterdam is X + 1, Montreal is X– 5, Tokyo is X+ 9 and Lisbon is X, X denotes:
A. GMT
B. the temperature as measured by the Kelvin scale to arrive at the temperature as measured by the Celsius scale
C. base from which height and depth from the sea-level is measured
D. the figure to be used from converting the Imperial System to the Metric System

36. Which of the following would be the right time when it is 5.30 pm in India ?
A. America –9 a.m.
B. Moscow–12 p.m.
C. Brazil –7 a.m.
D. London –12 noon

37. Which of the following is a block mountain?
A. Alps
B. Vosges
C. Rocky
D. Andes

38. Mountains are important in the Middle East because they:
A. are the source of rivers
B. are rich in minerals
C. block the cold winds
D. cause rainfall

39. Match the following:
a. Rift Valley
1. Apalachians
b. Fold
2. Vosges
c. Block
3. Red Sea
d. Volcanic Mountain
4. Fujiyama
A. a3, b1, c4, d2
B. a3, b2, c1, d4
C. a3, b1, c2, d4
D. a3, b4, c2, d1

40. The Baku region of Russia is known for:
A. aircraft industry
B. petroleum production
C. iron smelting
D. ship building

41. Which volcano in the Philippines erupted after remaining dormant for nearly six centuries?
A. Barren islands
B. Mt Fujiama
C. Mt Unzen
D. Mt Pinatubo

42. Identify which one of the following pairs is wrong?
A. Hurricane –Central United States
B. Trade winds – blow towards the equator
C. Doldrums –near the equator
D. New Moore Island– India

43. Tropical cyclone system occurring in Philippines, Japan and China sea is known as:
A. tornadoes
B. typhoons
C. thunder
D. hail storm

44.Great Britain is warmer than other places of the world at the same distance from the equator because of :
A. its nearness to water
B. its altitude
C. the warming effects of the Gulf Stream
D. its distance from water

45. Fog is common around New-found land Coast because:
A. icebergs melt around the coast
B. warm and cold currents meet
C. the rainfall is heavy
D. high tides cause storms

46. Which of the following cities is situated on the banks of River Tiber?
A. Tokyo
B. Rome
C. Peking
D. Berlin

47. Which of the following rivers has a "bird’s foot" delta?
A. The Amazon
B. The Brahmaputra
C. The Mississippi
D. The Nile

48. The main stream of the river Ganga which flows into Bangladesh beyond Farakka is known as:
A. Banganga
B. Brahmaputra
C. Padma
D. Suvarna Rekha

49. The two cities that are most similar in terms of climate are:
A. Vancouver – Paris
B. Capetown –Algiers
C. Montreal – Murmansk
D. Panama City– Tokyo

50. When there is summer in North Africa, South Africa will experience:
A. summer
B. winter
C. autumn
D. fall


INDIAN GEOGRAPHY MCQs


World Geography

1. Savanna grasslands are found in:
A. North America
B. Africa
C. Australia
D. East Asia

2. Which one of the following is associated with Argentina?
A. Pampas
B. Baobab
C. Slage
D. All the above

3. Which of the following regions of Siberia is most sparsely populated ?
A. Taiga region
B. Western Siberia
C. South Siberia
D. Tundra region of Northern Siberia

4. The largest reserve of ‘Sal’ forests is found in :
A. Nilgiri hills
B. Dehradun valley
C. The Aravalis
D. Eastern Peninsula

5. In which of the following continents is Atacama desert located?
A. North America
B. South America
C. Asia
D. Africa

6. Which can provide the shortest route between Moscow and San Francisco?
A. Over the North Pole
B. Over the South Pole
C. Via Canada
D. All are same

7. What will be the correct sequential order of the following four cities when a traveller passes through them from west to east almost along30° N latitude?
1.Cairo
2. Suez
3.Abadan
4. Quetta

A. 3,4,1,2
B. 4,1,2,3
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,3,4,2

8. The strait that separates USA and Russia where they are nearest is:
A. Hudson
B. Davis
C. Bering
D. Bosporus

9. The international air route from West Europe to East Asia passes through India because:
A. it is the shortest route
B. India is the only country in Asia providing refueling capacity
C. India is a busy centre situated between the two places
D. None of the above

10. Which one of the following provides the shortest air-route from New Delhi to Vancouver?
A. New Delhi- London- New York- Vancouver
B. New Delhi- Paris- New York- Vancouver
C. New Delhi- Bangkok- Tokyo- Vancouver
D. New Delhi- Moscow- London- Vancouver

11. The ‘Karakoram’ Highway connects :
A. India– Pakistan
B. India– China
C. China– Tibet
D. Pakistan– China

12. Water transportation has long been important because:
A. it is the fastest means of transportation
B. it is the cheapest means of moving heavy goods
C. goods can be delivered directly to factories
D. it is the fastest route

13. Straits and canals are important in water routes because they :
A. are some times as large as seas
B. have the best sea ports along their routes
C. are often shortcuts to larger bodies of water
D. they incur less expense

14. Between which countries is Florida Strait located?
A. USA and Panama
B. Cuba and Panama
C. Cuba and USA
D. Cuba and Bahamas

15. The Strait of Gibraltar separates Spain from:
A. Asia
B. Africa
C. North America
D. England

16. The strait which separates Asia from North America is the:
A. Strait of Gibraltar
B. Palk Strait
C. Strait of Malacca
D. Berring Strait

17. Which two of the following are connected by Palk Strait ?
A. India and Sri Lanka
B. North Korea and South Korea
C. Britain and France
D. None of the above

18. Sunda Strait separates:
A. Burma and Celebes
B. Java and Sumatra
C. Japan and Korea
D. Sicily and Italy

19. Shat-al-Arab demarcates the boundaries of:
A. Syria and Turkey
B. Iraq and Saudi Arabia
C. Iran and Afghanistan
D. Iraq and Iran

20. One of the following statements about the Suez Canal is not true. Which is it?
A. It is the shortest shipping route linking London, Marseilles and Colombo
B. The goods carried through the canal are varied and bulky. The goods are predominantly raw materials from the East and Far East and manufactured goods from the West
C. Canal tolls have in no way forced many shipping lines to revert to the Cape route
D. The canal shortens the shipping route between Southampton and Colombo by about 4,000miles

21. Which of the following statements about the Panama Canal is in correct ?
A. Over half of the shipping is domestic traffic between the east and west coasts of the USA
B. The canal has improved the trade of the Caribbean countries
C. The route’s greatest disadvantage is that it is seriously affected by fog making shipping dangerous
D. Goods handled are mainly oil, cotton, coffee, ores and manufactured goods

22. Both Canada and the United States are interested in the Arctic region because :
A. it has many minerals
B. it is the shortest route of Asia
C. it is rich in fur-bearing animals
D. of security reasons

23. North Atlantic Ocean route is an important international trade route because :
A. it is an old route
B. it is free from rough weather and therefore safe
C. it connects two industrialized regions
D. None of the above

24.The greatest water trade routes of the world are found on the:
A. Pacific Ocean
B. Atlantic Ocean
C. Gulf of Mexico
D. Indian Ocean

25. The Great Barrier of the coast of Australia provides for that country a/an:
A. abundant supply of minerals
B. semi-enclosed water way for about 120 miles
C. excellent fortification against attack on its major cities
D. connecting link between it and New Zealand

26. One feature of Chinese agriculture is:
A. almost complete absence of horse and cattle
B. non-dependence on rain
C. bonsai cultivation
D. heavy cattle and horse population

27. The lack of good quality land in Latin America is, to some extent, compensated for by:
A. very large coal reserve
B. huge oil reserve
C. very large areas of natural pastures
D. industrialization

28. The country which is the second largest tea producer after India is :
A. Russia
B. USA
C. China
D. Sri Lanka

29. World’s biggest dairy produce exporter is:
A. Denmark
B. New Zealand
C. Australia
D. West Germany

30. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A. Tundra Region – Lichen and Moses
B. Mediterranean Region – Groundnut and Potato
C. China Type Region – Tea and Sugar beat
D. West-European Region – Corn & Wheat

31. Which country is the world’s largest producer of wool?
A. New Zealand
B. Australia
C. South Africa
D. Brazil

32. Which of the following countries is the world’s largest producer of rubber?
A. Sri Lanka
B. Nigeria
C. India
D. Malaya

33. Australia is god for raising sheep because :
A. there is plenty of grass throughout the country
B. the warm northern lowlands are ideal for raising sheep
C. much of the country is dry and sheep need little water
D. its climate is god for rearing sheep

34. Australians are able to grow large amounts of wheat because:
A. the fields are large, flat and suited to the use of machinery
B. fields are far from the smoke-filled cities
C. they have a large labour supply
D. of plenty of rainfall

35. A reason why farming is difficult in Scandinavia is that:
A. the growing season is short
B. there is a small population
C. there is a lack of water
D. there is heavy rainfall

36. Cotton is grown in the Nile River Valley because:
A. the climate of Egypt is different from the rest of the Middle East
B. a warm climate and irrigated land are best for growing cotton
C. farmers in Egypt are richer than farmers in the rest of the region
D. its cold climate is ideal for growing cotton

37. Which of the following is the mainstay of the Brazilian economy?
A. Cocoa
B. Coffee
C. Tea
D. Tobacco

38. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Crop)
List II (Top Producer)
a. Olives
1. USA
b. Cotton
2. Italy
c. Tomato
3. Brazil
d. Coffee
4. China
5. Indonesia
Codes :
A. a1, b4, c3, d2
B. a4, b1, c5, d3
C. a2, b1, c3, d4
D. a2, b4, c1, d3

39. Among the tobacco producing countries of the world, the position of India is next to:
A. US and China
B. Italy and France
C. Turkey and Egypt
D. Japan and Malaysia

40. Which country leads in shrimp (prawn) fishing ?
A. USA
B. Japan
C. India
D. USSR

41. The largest producers of fish in the world:
A. Norway
B. Alaska
C. Japan
D. Canada

42. The largest producer of Jute in the world is:
A. Bangladesh
B. China
C. India
D. Indonesia

43. Assertion (A): France produces the best wine in the world.
Reason (R) : There is a district in France called Champagne which produces first class grapes and these are used for the production of wine.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the reason for A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the reason for A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

44. The largest silver producer in the world is:
A. USA
B. Mexico
C. Guatemala
D. Bolivia

45. The chief importer of iron ore from India is:
A. Iran
B. Japan
C. South Korea
D. South Africa

46. The world’s largest production of Uranium comes from:
A. Katanga (Zaire)
B. Ore mountain (E. Germany)
C. Northern Canada
D. Jos Plateau (Nigeria)

47. The mineral resource which has made the Middle East of vital importance to the world today is:
A. oil
B. coal
C. tin
D. silver

48. The Congo has been an important section to Africa because:
A. it lies along the trade routes from north to south
B. its mines have copper and diamonds
C. it has the only oil processing plants in Africa
D. it is the main industrial area of Africa

49. The ‘Land of the Golden Fleece’ is a term used to describe:
A. South Africa
B. Australia
C. New Zealand
D. Tasmania

50. ‘Abadan’ is the famous oil town of:
A. Iraq
B. Iran
C. Jordan
D. Saudi Arabia

51. The ‘Vital Triangle’ of Europe is the important:
A. agricultural region of the Balkan countries
B. industrial region of Italy’s Po River
C. industrial area of the Ruhr Valley of Germany
D. rail road connection from France to Spain and Italy

52. Consider the two statements labelled Assertion ‘A’and Reason ‘R’ below:
Assertion (A):
Italy, Switzerland, Sweden and Norway have abundant power resources.
Reason (R): They have the largest coal deposits in Europe.


A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

53. The most common mineral found on earth is :
A. Iron
B. Bauxite (aluminium)
C. Quartz
D. Tin

54. Which of the following is the most industrialised country?
A. Bangla Desh
B. Malaysia
C. Nepal
D. Singapore

55. Which is the largest city in China ?
A. Shanghai
B. Canton
C. Peking
D. Nanking

56. Which is the most densely populated territory in the world?
A. Pakistan
B. Macau
C. India
D. China

57. Which is the poorest country in Europe?
A. Albania
B. Belgium
C. Austria
D. Turkey

58. Which of these is the smallest country in Europe?
A. Vatican City
B. Monaco
C. Andorra
D. Luxembourg

59. Name the most populous city in the world:
A. Beijing
B. Tokyo
C. Shanghai
D. Mexico City

60. The largest of the Nordic countries is:
A. Norway
B. Finland
C. Sweden
D. Denmark

61. The most populous of the Nordic countries is:
A. Switzerland
B. Norway
C. Sweden
D. Denmark

62. The largest country in the world is:
A. India
B. China
C. Russia
D. USA

63. The UAE has Emirates, the largest and the richest of them is:
A. 6; Fujeirah
B. 7; Abu Dhabi
C. 8; Dubai
D. 4; Umm-al-Quwain

64. Which country would one select to go to get Ostrich, Platypus and Koala bear ?
A. Japan
B. Australia
C. Africa
D. Canada

65. Two lists are given below. Choose the alternative that gives the correct match of items
a. Eskimo
1. Canada
b. Oraon
2. Norway
c. Lapps
3. Russia
d. Gonds
4. India
5. Africa
A. a1, b5, c3, d4
B. a1, b4, c3, d2
C. a1, b3, c4, d2
D. a1, b5, c2, d4

66. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
A. Khartoum is on the bank of the river Nile
B. Manila is on the bank of the river Yangtze Kiang
C. Tokyo is on the bank of the river Krishna
D. Eskimos live in the Arctic region of the world

67. Match the following:
a. Australia
1. Ottawa
b. Canada
2. Johannesberg
c. South Africa
3. Riyadh
d. Saudi Arabia
4. Canberra
A. a1, b2, c3, d4
B. a2, b3, c4, d1
C. a4, b1, c2, d3
D. a4, b1, c3, d2

68. Which country is not in Europe?
A. Holland
B. Belgium
C. Lebanon
D. Sweden

69. Which one of these countries is not in South America?
A. Peru
B. Paraguay
C. Mexico
D. Brazil

70. Which one of these countries is not in Scandinavia?
A. Denmark
B. Luxembourg
C. Sweden
D. Norway

71. Which country is not in Africa?
A. Zanzibar
B. Ghana
C. Trinidad
D. Sudan

72. Name the largest island in the world:
A. Greenland
B. Madagascar
C. Great Britain
D. New Guinea

73. Which is the largest Gulf in the world?
A. The Gulf of Mexico
B. The Gulf of Cambay
C. The Persian Gulf
D. The Strait of Hormuz

74. Name world’s highest dam:
A. Nurek, Russia
B. Rogunsky, Russia
C. Grand Dixence, Switzerland
D. Vaionst, Italy

75. Which of the following is the largest irrigation canal in the world?
A. Suez Canal
B. Indira Gandhi Canal
C. Panama Canal
D. Sirhind Canal

76. Which is the greatest Archipelago on the globe?
A. Indonesia
B. Japan
C. Philippines
D. West Indies

77. Japan experiences frequent earthquakes because it is located :
A. on the eastern coast of Asia
B. in the volcanic belt
C. amidst the ocean
D. on the meeting point of two plates of the earth’s crust

78. Which one of the following characteristics is common to New York and Mumbai?
A. Insular location
B. Film production
C. Mountainous coastal background
D. Administrative status

79. Havaian Island were discovered in 1778 by Legendary:
A. Captain James Cook
B. John Cabot
C. Christopher Columbus
D. Vasco de Gama

80. The continent whose southern tip lies closest to Antarctica is:
A. South America
B. Africa
C. Australia
D. Asia

INDIAN GEOGRAPHY MCQs


Physical Geography

1. Earth is represented nearly perfect by:
A. globe
B. maps
C. topography sheets
D. three-dimensional maps


2. Satellites put in orbit by man have discovered that the earth is:
A. exactly round
B. exactly oval
C. orange-shaped
D. pear-shaped


3. The shape of the Earth is:
A. spherical
B. circular
C. tetrahedral
D. geoid


4. The average diameter of the earth is approximately:
A. 25,000 miles
B. 10,000 miles
C. 8,000 miles
D. 15,000 miles


5. The circumference of the earth is:
A. 25,000 kms
B. 25,000 miles
C. 8,000 metres
D. 8,000 kms


6. The three basic movements of earth are:
A. galatic, revolution and rotation
B. katabatic, revolution and rotation
C. adiabatic, revolution and rotation
D. adiabatic, katabatic, galatic


7. Rotation refers to:
A. turning of the earth on its own axis
B. earth movement around the centre of the galaxy
C. earth movement around the sun
D. movement of the planets


8. When earth is closest to the sun, it is at:
A. perihelion
B. aphelion
C. kames
D. helion


9. When earth is farthest from the sun, it is at:
A. cirque
B. xerophitic
C. aphelion
D. perihelion


10. The earth is closest to the sun at a distance of about 91,500,000 miles on:
A. January 3
B. December 25
C. December 24
D. June 21


11. The earth is farthest from the sun at a distance of about 94,500,000 miles on:
A. July 4
B. June 22
C. March 2
D. September 22


12. The earth’s axis is tilted at an angle of:
A. 23.5°
B. 66.5°
C. 33.5°
D. 45.5°


13. The time required for the earth to complete one rotation with respect to stars is:
A. 23h 56m 4.09s
B. 24h
C. 24h 1m 0.1s
D. 23h


14. The time required for the earth to complete one rotation with respect to the sun is:
A. 23h 56m 4.09s
B. 24h
C. 24h 1m 0.1s
D. 23h


15. When earth completes one rotation in 23h 56m 4.09s, it is called a:
A. Sidereal day
B. Star day
C. Sun day
D. Lunar day


16. The northern tip of the earth is inclined towards the sun on:
A. June 21
B. December 2
C. March 21
D. September 22


17. When days and nights are of equal length on September 23, this position is known as:
A. equinox
B. occluded
C. veering
D. kames


18. How many days does the earth take to complete a circle around the sun?
A. 365
B. 365.5
C. 365.25
D. 366


19. The earth’s movement in its orbit is from:
A. West to East
B. East to West
C. North to South
D. South to North


20. The southern tip of the earth is inclined towards the sun on:
A. June 2
B. December 2
C. September 2
D. March 22


21. The sun rays on March 21 and September 23 strike with an angle of 90° on:
A. 0° latitude
B. 23.5° latitude
C. 66.5° latitude
D. 45.5° latitude


22. The sun rays strike on June 21 with an angle of 90° on the:
A. Tropic of Cancer
B. Tropic of Capricorn
C. Arctic Circle
D. Great Circle


23. The sun rays on December 2 strike with an angle of 90°on the:
A. Tropic of Cancer
B. Tropic of Capricorn
C. Antarctic Circle
D. Equator


24. Insolation is:
A. solar radiation
B. earth radiation
C. satellite radiation
D. lunar radiation


25. Intensity and duration of insolation are major factors that determine seasons. It varies due to:
A. inclination of axis and revolution
B. rotation
C. revolution
D. earth’s distance from sun


26. Earth’s annual revolution around the sun causes:
A. seasons
B. day and night
C. rainfall distribution on the globe
D. differing lengths of day and night in different places


27. Which of the following was not a leap year?
A. 1896
B. 1908
C. 1900
D. 1904


28. Generally temperature decreases with increase in:
A. latitude
B. longitude
C. sclerophyllous
D. altitude


29. Assertion (A): Only half of the moon’s surface is directly visible from the earth.
Reason (R): The period of rotation of the moon on its axis is equal to the period of its revolution of earth.
A. A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
B. A and R are true and R correctly explains A
C. Both A and R are false
D. A is false but R is true


30. Which one of the following best explains the occurrence of solar eclipse?
A. When sun is in between moon and earth
B. When earth is in between moon and sun
C. When moon comes between sun and earth on a new moon day
D. When moon comes between sun and earth on a full moon day


31. Which part of the sun is visible during a total solar eclipse?
A. Corona
B. Chromo sphere
C. Photosphere
D. No part is visible


32. Lunar Eclipse is caused when:
A. the sun and the moon and the earth are in a line
B. the earth comes between the sun and the moon
C. the sun and the earth are on either side of the moon
D. the sun comes between the earth and the moon


33. When does lunar eclipse occur?
A. On half moon
B. On quarter moon
C. On full moon
D. On new moon


34. The full moon rises in the:
A. South
B. North
C. East
D. West


35. Assertion (A) : Eclipses can not occur on all full moon and new moon days.
Reason (R): The moon revolves in an elliptical orbit round the earth.

A. A and R are true but R does not explain A
B. Both A and R are false
C. A and R are true and R correctly explains A
D. A is true but R is false


36. The longest circle which can be drawn on the earth surface passes along:
A. Circle of Arctic
B. Equator
C. Tropic of Cancer
D. Tropic of Capricorn


37. An imaginary circle which passes through the centre of the earth on its surface is called:
A. Great circle
B. Arctic circle
C. Antarctic circle
D. Equator


38. The imaginary parallel lines running from East to West are:
A. latitudes
B. longitudes
C. altitudes
D. prime meridian


39. The equator divides the earth into two hemispheres named:
A. North and South
B. East and West
C. North-South and East-West
D. South-West and North-East


40. The end point of the imaginary axis is called:
A. Pole
B. Point
C. Selva
D. Cirque


41. The imaginary lines running from North to South are called:
A. latitudes
B. longitudes
C. parallels
D. altitudes


42. The latitude of a place expresses its angular position relative to the plane of:
A. Axis of the Earth
B. Equator
C. North Pole
D. South Pole


43. Isotherms are imaginary lines drawn on a map which connect places of equal:
A. atmospheric pressure
B. humidity
C. rainfall
D. temperature


44. Seasonal contrasts are maximum in:
A. Mid latitudes
B. Low latitudes
C. High latitudes
D. Subtropics


45. Lines drawn on a map through places having equal height above sea level are called:
A. Contours
B. Isobars
C. Isotherms
D. Isotopes


46. Which longitude is known as the Prime Meridian?
A. 0° longitude
B. 0° E longitude
C. 0° W longitude
D. 0° latitude


47. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in:
A. kms from the Equator
B. angles from the Equator
C. angles from the Poles
D. kms from Poles


48. Which of the following statements about meridians and equator is true?
A. Meridians are imaginary lines parallel to equator
B. Meridians and equator converge at the two poles
C. Meridians and equator never meet each other
D. Meridians are perpendicular to the equator


49. The longitude of a place on a clear night sky can be determined by measuring the angle which the:
A. Observer, Venus and Pole-star make among them
B. Pole-star makes with the Observer
C. Pole-star, Observer and Saturn make among them
D. Observer makes with the moon


50. The altitude at which the geo-stationary satellite is placed is:
A. 5,000 kms
B. 12,000 kms
C. 24,000 kms
D. 36,000 kms