UPSC MAINS OPTIONAL QUESTION PAPER: LAW 2013

Instructions

1. There are EIGHT questions divided in Two Sections. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.
2. Question no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section.
3. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one.
4. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to.
5. Attempts of questions shall be counted in chronological order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the answer book must be clearly struck off.
6. 250 marks, 3 hours

Law Question Paper I: Section A

Question 1 (compulsory)

Each with 10 marks and 150 words x 5 question = 50 marks.

1. Has judiciary been a hindrance or a facilitator in the interpretation of Directive Principles? Examine in the light of various judgments of the Supreme Court.
2. “Fundamental duties are only ethical or moral duties and should not form a part of the Fundamental law.” Comment.
3. Is ‘Commercial advertisement’ covered within the ambit of ‘freedom of speech and expression’? Discuss with reference to leading cases.
4. critically examine the constitutional validity of an amendment deleting Article 16(4) and authorising the State to make job reservation in favour of the backward classes of citizens.
5. Doctrine of equality under the Constitution cannot be applied to legitimise an illegal act. Can equality be invoked to justify another wrong? Critically examine with reference to cases.

Question 2

Each with 25 marks. Word limit not given

1. Do you agree with the view that “Equality is antithesis of arbitrariness. In fact equality and arbitrariness are sworn enemies”? Comment critically.
2. “The Constitution of India merely subscribes to three-fold division of gubernatorial functions and not to the doctrine of separation of powers in its absolute rigidity.” Comment.

Question 3

Each with 25 marks. Word limit not given

1. The goals specified in the Preamble contain basic structure of our Constitution, which cannot be amended under Article 368. Elaborate in context of leading cases.
2. What restrictions have been imposed by the Constitutional Amendment (44th) to check misuse of proclamation of emergency? Discuss.

Question 4

write critical notes on each of following.

1. Residuary Powers. 15
2. Whether law relating to preventive detention can be challenged for violation of Article 19? 15 marks
3. Introduction of Uniform Civil Code. 20 marks.

Law Question Paper I: Section B

Question 5 (compulsory)

10 marks each, word limit not given.

1. “Due to increasing penetration of international legal rules within the domestic systems, the distinction maintained between two autonomous zones of international and municipal law has been somewhat blurred.” Explain with special reference to Indian practice. How international legal rules emanating from customs and treaties, influence the actions of domestic agencies? 10 marks.
2. While concluding a multilateral treaty, a State can make reservation(s) and the other State(s) may accept or reject such reservation(s) without jeopardising the object and integrity of the treaty. Discuss the need and relevance of reservations in treaty law in the light of above statement. 10 marks.
3. Explain the rights and duties of coastal state over continental shelf, exclusive economic zone and high seas as defined under the provisions of UN Convention on Law of Sea (III), 1982
4. The Arbitration Commission of European Conference on Yugoslavia emphasised in opinion no. 2 that “it is well established that whatever the circumstances, the right to self-determination must not involve changes to existing frontiers at the time of independence (Uti possidetis juris) except where the states concerned agree otherwise.”Explain the present day relevance of principle of self-determination as a human right incorporated in both the international covenants with the help of at least one actual instance
5. “States are not under a duty to recognize a nationality acquired by a person who has no genuine link or connection with the naturalizing state.” [Nottenbohm case (second phase) ICJ 1955]. In the light of above statement, explain the concept of ‘nationality’ and its acquisition with the help of suitable instances.

Question 6

25 marks each, word limit not given.

1. “The substance of customary law must be looked into primarily in actual practice and `opinio juris’ of the States.” In the light of above statement and by referring to case law, explain the interplay between objective and subjective elements in acceptance of a particular custom as a source of international law.
2. “States are subject to a duty under International Law to recognise a new State fulfilling the legal requirements of Statehood, but the existence of such a duty is not borne out by the weight of precedents and practices of States. The decision of a State in according or withholding recognition is a matter of vital policy that each State is entitled to take by itself.” Reconcile and argue which of these two statements (extreme views) regarding recognition of a State given by Lauterpacht (obligatory) and by Podesta Costa (Facultative) is more appropriate, with the help of instances in regard to de facto and de jure recognition.

Question 7

25 marks each, word limit not given.

1. The concepts of ‘necessity’ and ‘proportionality’ are at the heart of self-defence in International Law. Explain, in the light of UN Charter and recent trend of extending these to ‘pre-emptive’ or ‘anticipatory’ self-defence due to ‘the imminence of attacks and advancement in armaments’.
2. A group of three men (L, M and N) citizens of country A, posing as officers of premier investigating agency of A, rob a huge jewellery shop and then flee away to country B, where they are granted asylum. Government of A, requests B to extradite L, M and N in terms of extradition treaty between them. B declines. A sends spies to B who abduct L, M and N and who produce them before the Court in A. `B’ approaches ICJ against use of force by ‘A’. Prepare (i) A brief of arguments for A, (ii) A brief of arguments for B,(iii) Opinion of the Court.

Question 8

25 marks each, word limit not given.

1. Chapter VI of UN Charter is devoted to peaceful settlement of International Disputes. Discuss the methods mentioned and explain the role of Security Council and General Assembly in this regard, and the role such settlement plays in obviating the need to resort to Chapter VII measures.
2. A member of European Union has witnessed widespread disturbances, consequent upon a military coup, including censorship on all forms of media and communication, targeting civilians sympathetic with the ousted leader by assaulting and killing, severe rationing and control on essential commodities such as fuel and food resulting into galloping inflation. In the light of these grave violations of human rights, examine the role of :
   1. Security Council
   2. European Court of Human Rights.

Law Question Paper 2: Section A

Question 1 (Compulsory)

10 marks x 125 words each x 5 questions= 50 marks

1. “The word ‘Voluntary’ as used in the Indian Penal Code is very significant and it does not mean willingly but knowingly or intentionally.” Explain.
2. “Fake police encounters are nothing but murders and police officers committing it without any protection of law to them deserve death penalty as the cases fall into rarer of the rarest category.” Comment.
3. “Nuisance as a tort means an unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land or some right over or in connection with it.” Comment.
4. “Involuntary drunkenness is a defence.” Critically examine the law relating to intoxication as defence.
5. “The definition given under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 gives altogether a new legal colour and scope to the term `Consumer’.” In the light of this statement, explain the term ‘Consumer’.

Question 2

25 marks each, word limit not given.

1. Mr.X, the producer of a film showing life of ‘homosexuals’, is prosecuted under Section 292 of the Indian Penal Code, alleging that the film was obscene and indecent. The film was certified by the Censor Board of Film of India for public shows. X intends to claim protection against his charge under Section 79 of the Indian Penal Code. Can he do so? Justify your answer.
2. The natural calamity in Uttarakhand left hundreds dead. Some people were seen removing gold ornaments, watches and other valuables from these dead bodies. Few days later, police apprehended them and wanted to prosecute them. Under which provisions of the Indian Penal Code can they be prosecuted? Discuss.

Question 3

1. “Assault is an act of the defendant which causes to the plaintiff reasonable apprehension of the infliction of a battery on him by the defendant.” Comment and distinguish between assault and battery. 20m
2. X sends an e-mail to Y containing defamatory matters against him. The e-mail is received by Y who deletes it after reading. Is X liable for publication? Refer to relevant case law. 15m
3. X, while driving car, suddenly became unconscious and fell back in his seat. The car became uncontrolled, it hit and killed Y. Discuss the liability of X. 15m

Question 4

25 marks each, word limit not given.

1. “Plea bargaining, which was considered unconstitutional, illegal and tending to encourage complaint, collusion and pollution of the pure punt of justice, is now a part of sentencing under the Indian Criminal Law.” Comment.
2. Q refused to marry her boyfriend P, resulting into Ps depression. Mr. R, a friend of P, suggested him to take revenge with an intention that P will come out of shock. R provided P with a bottle of liquid believing it as acid. P mistook X to be Q in darkness and threw it on her (X) causing rashes on the face of X, which later resulted into serious injuries. The investigations revealed that it was not acid but was a concentrate of fungicide. Decide the liability of P and R in this case, keeping in mind that defences which may be available to P and R.

Law Question Paper II: Section B

Question 5 (Compulsory)

10 marks x 125 words each x 5 questions= 50 marks

1. ‘Indemnity’ has relation to the conduct either of the indemnifier himself or of a third party. A ‘Guarantee’ is always related to the conduct of a third party.” Elucidate.
2. “Privity of contract is no longer a rule but only an exception.” Explain in the context of modern transactions.
3. “The copyright exists in expression but not in idea.” Discuss with the help of the provisions of Copyright Act and case law.
4. “The principle of ‘holding out’ is based on the principle of estoppel.” Elucidate.
5. “Once an instrument passes through the hands of a holder in due course, it is purged of all defects, it is true like a current coin.” Explain.

Question 6

25 marks each, word limit not given.

1. “It has been a common statement of the law that while relief is available for certain kinds of mutual mistake, it is unavailable for unilateral mistake unless the other party knew or had reason to know of the mistake.” Critically examine the statement with leading case law.
2. Critically analyse the term ‘inventive steps’ as incorporated under the Patent (Amendment) Act, 2005. Do you agree with the present definition? Refer to recent case law.

Question 7

25 marks each, word limit not given.

1. “An attempt by all political parties to bring amendments to the RTI Act, 2005 is to sabotage the steps towards transparency of governance in this country.” Critically evaluate the statement.
2. In matters such as enforcement of social, economic, cultural or political rights or civil liberties or gender concerns, courts in India have been inclined to apply relaxed rules of standing or litigational competence rather than strict rules of locus. Discuss.

Question 8

25 marks each, word limit not given.

1. Competition Law in India has not achieved the result as was expected. Discuss the bottlenecks with which it suffers and suggest the remedies necessary to make it fruitful.
2. Corporates causing havoc to the wildlife existing on seashores is an extreme type of environmental crime and laws are almost non-existent to deal with them directly. Discuss.

UPSC MAINS OPTIONAL QUESTION PAPER: POLITICAL SCIENCE 2013

Instruction

• In paper I, they’ve not mentioned wordlimit for each question, but in paper II: 15 marks = 200 words and 20 marks=also 200 words.
• skeleton remains same as earlier: two sections, attempt five out of eight questions, question #1 and #5 compulsory
• And out of the remaining, any three are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section.
• 250 marks, 3 hours for each paper.

Political Science Paper 1 Section A

Q.1 Comment on the following in approximately 150 words each, 10 marks each

1. “Personal is political”
2. “Original position”
3. “Covenants without swords are but words, and of no strength to secure a man at all.”
4. Sri Aurobindo’s “idea of freedom”
5. Sri Ahmed Khan as modernizer

Q.2

1. Discuss the communitarian critique of liberalism. 20
2. Examine Ambedkar’s critique of Marxism. 15
3. Explain, as per Gramsci, the distinction between hegemony and domination. 15

Q.3

1. Analyze the relationship between natural rights and human rights. 20
2. Examine the significance of Dharma in Ancient Indian political thought. 15
3. Discuss in what sense Max’s understanding of state can be considered as materialistic. 15

Q.4

1. Explain Berlin’s notion of value pluralism. 20
2. Analyse,as per Kautilya,the Saptanga theory of the state. 15
3. Comment on the Assertion of Laslett that Filmer and not Hobbes was the main antagonist of Locke. 15

Political Science Paper I Section B

Q.5 Comment on the following in approximately 150 words each, 10 marks each

1. Marxist understanding of India’s freedom movement
2. Significance of the Preamble
3. Decline of Indian Parliament
4. Gandhian perspective of development and its contemporary relevance.
5. Compare and contrast Chipko Movement with Narmada Bachao Andolan.

Q.6

1. Explain the phenomenon of ethnic politics in India in recent times.
2. Analyse the significance of Article 32 of the Indian Constitution.
3. Examine the role of Supreme Court as the final interpreter of the Indian Constitution.

Q.7

1. “Cooperative federalism produces a strong central, or general government, yet it does not necessarily result in weak provincial governments that are largely administrative agencies for central policies. Indian federation has demonstrated this.”(Granville Austin) Examine the uniqueness of Indian federalism in the light of the above statement. 20m
2. Explain to what extent the concept of “one-party dominance”(W.H.Morris-Jones)model is relevant in Indian policy today. 20m
3. Analyze the position of the Prime Minister of India in a coalition regime. 20m

Q.8

1. Examine the significance of the verdicts of the Supreme Court in the Golaknath and Keshavananda Bharati cases for an understanding of the scope of Article 368 in regard to Fundamental Rights.
2. Point out and comment on the historic importance of the document “Towards Equality(1974),for women’s movement in India.”
3. Examine the changing structure of Panchayati Raj instituions with special reference to the 73rd Constituiton Amendment Act.

Political Science Paper II: Section-A

Q1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each x 10 mark each

1. Identify the elements of change in India’s foreign policy.
2. Sketch the leadership role of India in WTO negotiations.
3. Examine the recent developments in India-Japan relationship.
4. Bring out the objectives of India seeking permanent seat in Security Council
5. Is India’s Nuclear doctrine a viable one?

Q2 Answer the following questions in about 200 words each (20+15+15=50m)

1. Compare and contrast social movements in advanced industrial and developing societies.
2. Give reasons for Regionalism of world politics.
3. Compare and Contrast Sin-India approaches to global Environmental concerns.

Q3 Answer the following questions in about 200 words each (20+15+15=50m)

1. What roles do norms, taboos and epistemic play in the context of nuclear proliferation?
2. Substitantiate APEC as a regional economic and trade arrangement.
3. Identify the major changes in the International Political economy in post Cold War period.

Q4 Answer the following questions in about 200 words each (20+15+15=50m)

1. Is the rise of social movement a sign of opening up of popular space in political process or decline of representative politics?Examine.
2. Highlight the major features of Non-alignment 2.0 document
3. Identify the role and place of Gender in the global economy.

Political Science Paper 2: Section-B

Q5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each x 10 marks each

1. Identify the challenges to American hegemony in post Soviet world.
2. What does the pace of nuclear proliferation in post Cold War suggest?
3. State the place of Gender Justice in global agenda.
4. “Global commons belong to global society and requires global attention”.Comment.
5. Sketch the journey of global political economy from Washington consensus to the present.

Q6. Answer the following questions in about 200 words each (20+15+15=50m)

1. Examine major principles of State centric world views.
2. How does Marxist approcah explain contemporary International Relations?
3. ‘National Interests are Dynamic’. Identify the dynamic nature of National Interests in the contemporary world polities with suitable examples.

Q7. Answer the following questions in about 200 words each (20+15+15=50m)

1. ‘The economic content of India’s foreign trade is increasingly growing’. Substantiate the statement with economic diplomatic engagements of India in the last decade.
2. Write a note on Intellectual precursors of Realism.
3. ‘Building ‘peace by pieces’ is the basis of functionalism’. Elaborate.

Q8 Answer the following questions in about 250 words each (20+15+15=50m)

1. ‘Transnational actors have become driving forces of global politics’. Elaborate.
2. ‘A minimal State ensures maximum of Individual Liberty’. Examine the concept of Minimal State.
3. ‘Collective Security and Collective Defense are the institutional and State mechanism to sustain the domination of powers that be in International politics’. Elaborate.

UPSC MAINS OPTIONAL QUESTION PAPER: PSYCHOLOGY 2013

Psychology Paper 1: Section A

Question 1: Answer the following, each in not more than 150 words. 10×5=50 marks

1. Critically evaluate the cognitive approach to the study of psychological phenomena.
2. What is ethnocentrism? Bow is it reflected in psychological research?
3. What factors contribute to the encoding of information into LTM?
4. How flow of genes affect development?
5. Describe different reinforcement schedules and indicate their effects on the strength of learning.

Question 2: Answer each in not more than 250 words :15+20+15

1. What do you understand by ‘effect size’ and ‘statistical power’? Explain their significance.
2. Discuss the importance of early relationship l’or developmental outcomes in the light of researches by Bowlby and Anisworth.
3. Compare template matching and feature detection accounts of pattern recognition.

Question 3: Answer the following, each in not more than 400 words. 25+25

1. The discipline of psychology has grown and developed through debate between those who held that it should be modelled on natural science and those who subscribed to the view that it has to follow the model of social science. What arguments you envision for or against these views? What position you would like to endorse and why?
2. Bring out the key developmental challenges faced by adolescents in the cognitive and social domains.

Question 4: Answer the following, each in not more than 250 words: 15+20+15

1. Why our representations of the external world are not entirely accurate?
2. Describe and evaluate the modal model of short-term memory.
3. Describe the basic elements of observation and bring out the implications of the dimension of participation in observational research.

Psychology Paper I: Section B

Question 5: Answer each in 150 words. 10 x 5 =50

1. What is the situational critique of trait psychology?
2. Explain Sternberg’s view of intelligence and bring out its implication for schooling.
3. Every function in the child’s development appears twice : first on social level and later. on the individual level.” Vygotsky. Discuss the above statement and indicate your own position on this proposition.
4. What are the process of language production?
5. How do novices differ from experts?

Question 6: Answer the following, each in not more than 250 words :15+20+15

1. Bring out the role of left and right hemispheres in emotional experience.
2. What is intrinsic motivation? Why it gets reduced if the person gets external rewind for undertaking a task that he or she loves?
3. Explain correspondents’ bias. Is it universal or culturally variable?

Question 7: Answer the following each in more than 400 words :25+25

1. What is the role of social categorization in the formation of prejudice? Suggest some strategies to reduce prejudice.
2. How the psychoanalytic view differs from physiological or cognitive view of dream?

Question 8: Answer the following. each in not more than 250 words: 15+20+15

1. What are the requirements to be met by psychological assessment tools for offering accurate and useful measure of psychological constructs?
2. What makes a persuasive attempt effective? Discuss.
3. Describe the Indian approach to personality as reflected in the principle of three Gunas.

Psychology Paper 2 Section A

Question 1: Answer the following questions in about 150 words each. 10 x 5 =50m

1. How will you ensure that a newly constructed personnel selection test measures that it purports to measure and predicts what it intends to predict? Explain.
2. Reflect on the major issues and contradictions related to the understanding of well-being. Discuss with reference to current social trends.
3. How would you identify gifted children? Explain with examples.
4. Discuss the steps that can be taken to improve the quality of group decision-making.
5. India rates very high on carbon emission. What use can be made of psychological knowledge to reduce the level of carbon emission in India?

Question 2: Answer the following questions in about 200 words each: 15+15+20

1. What is your understanding of organizational politics? Discuss how it impacts decision-making processes in bureaucratic organizations.
2. Discuss the psychological implications of the ‘glass ceiling’ effect from the perspective of an administrator.
3. Reflecting on the status of education in India, state whether it can help in reducing the gap which has been experienced due to social inequality.

Question 3: Answer the following questions in about 200 words each.15+20+15

1. Discuss the relative efficacy of psycho-social and community-based rehabilitation models in case of the physically challenged.
2. Identify relevant indices for understanding the emergence of ingroup and outgroup processes. Discuss with the help of a suitable theoretical framework.
3. Discuss the key determinants of consumer behaviour in India. How do cultural values influence it?

Question 4: Answer the following questions in about 200 words each. 15+20+15

1. What psychological approach/approaches can be used to persuade those who oppose family planning on religious grounds?
2. Identify the factors in arousal of community consciousness and also the
3. strategies for handling social problems keeping in view some of the recent protest movements in India.
4. What are the necessary conditions required in client-centred therapy? Discuss the therapeutic process involved in it.

Psychology Paper II Section B

Question 5: Answer the following questions in about 150 words each. 10 x 5 =50

1. Discuss how the psychological training given to sports persons can be useful for administrators with reference to maintaining team spirit and group morale.
2. How can psychological resilience of the personnel of the armed forces be enhanced? Discuss.
3. Discuss how cognitive and motivational factors influence entrepreneurial behaviour.
4. How can psychological principles be used to conserve water? Develop a plan.
5. Define ‘self-fulfilling prophecy’. Can it affect the students’ performance belonging to special categories?

Question 6: Answer the following questions in about 200 words each: 20+15+15

1. Discuss the relative significance of group factors versus personality factors in explaining the behaviour of terrorists.
2. Identify the ethical and non-ethical uses of psychological tests especially measuring individual differences. Provide suitable examples.
3. What bases of power are used by successful leaders to exercise influence within organizations? Discuss.

Question 7: Answer the following questions in about 200 words each: 15 + 20+15

1. What lessons can be drawn from psychological research to promote gender equality in the workplace?
2. What explanations are offered by psychological theories about the manner in which media influences antisocial behavior?
3. Discuss the influences of information technology in modifying the career perspectives of young adults with special reference to the values of life.

Question 8: Answer the following questions in about 200 words each: 20+15+15

1. Reflect on the possibility of fostering positive mental health through indigenous therapies along with cultural practices.
2. Is religion in India at the root of social conflicts? Discuss and provide suitable ways to deal with such conflicts.
3. “Poverty alleviation is a dream spread with ulterior motives.” Do you agree? Justify your views.

UPSC MAINS OPTIONAL QUESTION PAPER: MEDICAL SCIENCE 2013

Medical Science Paper I: Section A

Q- 1(a) Describe the shoulder joint under the following heads.  [2.5*4 =10]

1. Type
2. Movements
3. Muscles
4. Applied anatomy

Q-1 (b) Describe the thyroid gland under the following heads. [10]

1. Lobes
2. Relations
3. Surgical anatomy

Q-1 (c) Define synapse, enumerate the steps of synaptic transmission. What is  the significance of synaptic delay ?  [10]

Q-1 (d) What is the mechanism of accommodation in eye ? Why near point recedes in old age ? [5 + 5 = 10]

Q-1 (e) Avidin, an egg protein has great affinity for a vitamin. Discuss the biochemical role of that vitamin. [10]

Q-2 (a) Describe the morphological relations of Kidney. Add a note on relations of right Kidney. [5 + 5 = 10]

Q-2 (b) Describe the steps in development of uterus. Name any four congenital malformations of uterus. [6 + 4 = 10]

Q-2 (c) Define a dermatome. Illustrate by means of labelled diagram(s) dermatomes of lower limb. [10]

Q-2 (d) Name the functions of placenta. List any four malformations of placenta. [10]

Q-2 (e) Describe the structures forming the floor of fourth ventricle of brain. [10]

Q-3 (a) Enumerate the factors required for normal erythropoiesis. Why polycythemia occurs at high altitude ? [10 +5=15]

Q-3 (b) Describe the role of baroreceptors in regulation of normal B.P . Why is it effective only in short term regulation of Blood Pressure ( B.P) ? [10 + 5=15]

Q-3 (c) Describe the physiological basis of signs and symptoms of insulin deficiency. Explain the saying, starvation in the midst of plenty. [ 15 + 5= 20]

Q-4 (a) Name the folate antagonists used in treatment of bacterial infections and malignancy. Discuss their mechanism of actions also. [20]

Q-4 (b) Which mineral irreversibly inhibits glycolysis ? Discuss clinical manifestations due to its deficiency and toxicity. [20]

Q-4 (c) Write in brief- [5 + 5 = 10]

1. Reverse transcriptase- P.C.R.
2. Significance of S. enzymes in liver diseases

Medical Science Paper 1: Section B

Q-5 (a) Discuss differentiating features of primary and metastatic malignancies. [10]

Q-5 (b) Briefly describe various cells of immune system. Discuss classification system to differentiate lymphocytes. [10]

Q-5 (c) Explain why ?

1. Aspirin should not be administered around full- term pregnancy period

[2.5]

2. Thiazide diuretics alone are first line drugs for treating mild (stage-1) Hypertension and also potentiate other antihypertensive drug’s effect when used in combination with them to treat stage II & III hypertension.[2.5]
3. Low molecular weight heparin(LMWH) are preferred over conventional heparin for anticoagulant indication. [2.5]
4. Metformin is a first line orally effective drug for treating Type-II diabetes mellitus. [2.5]

Q-5 (d) Describe different types of injuries sustained by a victim of gang rape. How will you proceed to examine and opine in such a situation? [10]

Q-5 (e) Discuss role of mediators in different reactions of inflammation.[10]

Q-6 (a) Discuss pathogenesis of oral cancer. Briefly describe the malignant lesions that are likely to affect oral cavity. [15]

Q-6 (b) Describe aetiopathogenesis of alcoholic cirrhosis. Describe the gross and microscopic appearance. [15]

Q-6 (c)

1. Discuss pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of Amoebiasis. [10]
2. Discuss pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of Herpes simplex virus [10]

Q-7 (a) Discuss morphology, pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of Candidiasis. [15]

Q-7 (b)

1. Discuss the pharmacological strategies available for post myocardial infarction. [7.5]
2. Discuss the first line antimycobacterial drugs with special reference to their mechanism of action, side effects and development of resistance. [7.5]

Q-7 (c) What are the possible contributing factors in pathogenesis of carcinoma breast? Describe briefly histopathology of different types of breast carcinoma. [20]

Q-8 (a) Enumerate the drugs of abuse among young population of India. Describe the long term effects of drug abuse on health and personality of drug abuser. [20]

Q-8 (b) What are various tests to detect semen? Describe the confirmatory tests for semen stains. [15]

Q-8 (c) Enumerate the injuries caused by sharp weapon. Describe how you will correlate the weapon of offence with injuries. [15]

Medical Science Paper II: Section A

Q-1 (a) A 45 year old lady after the death of his husband 2 months back, is feeling lonely and remains aloof. [3+7=10]

1. Enumerate the likely conditions.
2. How will you diagnose and manage a major depressive disorder ?

Q-1 (b) What is the principle of ultrasound? In which medical conditions, it is almost diagnostic?[3+7=10]

Q-1 (c) A 2 year old boy was brought to you with cough and fever for 3 days. On examination the respiratory rate was 46 per minute along with lower chest indrawing.

1. Classify the illness of this child as per IMNCI
2. Outline the treatment of this child.
3. Enumerate the general danger signs you will ask or look for in this child to assess the severity of illness. [2+4+4=10]

Q-1 (d) An 8 month old child, weighing 8 kg, is brought with loose motions 6 per day, mixed with blood, for last 2 days. There is no history of vomiting.

1. Enumerate the 4 most important signs you will look/feel for to assess the severity of dehydration.
2. Assessment of dehydration reveals SOME dehydration. Write the initial prescription for appropriate management of this child.[4+6=10]

Q-1 (e) How will you differentiate between irritant and contact dermatitis? Write the salient differentiating points of both. [10]

Q-2 (a) An 18 year old boy was brought to the casualty in stuporose condition with history of high grade fever since last 3 days.

1. Enumerate the causes
2. Describe the management of cerebral malaria. [10+15]

Q-2 (b) An 18 month old girl is diagnosed with Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM). Outline the 4 diagnostic criteria for this condition. Write the 10 steps for appropriate management of severe malnutrition as per WHO guidelines. [5+10]

Q-2 (c)

1. Enumerate the cutaneous, mucosal, follicular and nail manifestations of Lichen Planus.
2. Describe the histopathological features of lichen planus and their relevance to clinical presentation. [6+4]

Q-3 (a) An elderly woman is bed ridden for 4 weeks because of a fractured hip. She is brought to the casualty with sudden onset of breathlessness.

1. Enumerate the possible causes of breathlessness in this case.
2. Describe the management of acute pulmonary embolism.  [5+20]

Q-3 (b) A 3 year child was brought to you with history of cyanotic spells and exertional dyspnea. The symptoms were relieved on assuming a knee chest position. The child had central cyanosis and clubbing. There were no features suggestive of congestive heart failure. Heart size was normal.

1. What is the most probable diagnosis ?
2. What is the major pathophysiological abnormality ?
3. Describe the pathophysiology and management of cyanotic spells in this condition. [2+3+10=15]

Q-3 (c)

1. What are the various etiological factors for causation of vitiligo?
2. Enumerate various disorders associated with vitiligo?  [6+4=10]

Q-4 (a) A 50 year old male, chronic heavy alcoholic for 20 years, was administered aspirin for headache. Following which he developed sudden massive hematemesis.

1. Enumerate the causes of hematemesis in this case.
2. How will you manage this patient ? [10+15]

Q-4 (b)

1. Draw a flow diagram of pathophysiology of Respiratory Distress Syndrome in new born.
2. Outline the measures to prevent RDS in pregnant woman at 30 weeks of gestation, with threatened preterm labour.
3. Enumerate the clinical factors predisposing to billirubin toxicity in new born infants. [ 5 + 5 + 5 =15]

Q-4 (c) A child in 2^nd class of public school had an itchy skin lesion. Within next 1 month, this lesion spread to 10 other students in the same class. Examination revealed multiple excoriated papulovesicular itchy lesions in finger webs and flexural aspects of wrists.

1. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
2. Outline the prophylactic measures to be undertaken to prevent the spread to other children.
3. Outline the management of individual children in this class. [2+4+4]

Medical Science Paper 2: Section B

Q-5 (a) What are the advantages and limitations of minimally invasive surgery? Briefly enumerate the principles of laparoscopic cholecystectomy and the complications which can occur during the procedure.[4+6]

Q-5 (b) What are the mode of infection, clinical presentation and complications of amoebic liver abscess? Briefly outline the management of patients with amoebic liver abscess including surgical intervention. [2+5+3]

Q-5 (c) Define menopause. What are the signs and symptoms of menopause ? How will you treat a case of hot flushes in a postmenopausal  woman ? [2+5+3]

Q-5 (d) What are the commonly used methods of first trimester termination of pregnancy ? Enumerate the immediate and remote complications of Medical Termination of Pregnancy. [5+5]

Q-5 (e) Write a paragraph on relative and attributable risks related to disease. How do they differ in the case of heart diseases ?[6+4]

Q-6 (a) How will you calculate the expected date of delivery ? what are the methods recently used for induction of labour ? What are the indications for terminations of induction of labour ?     [ 4+8+8]

Q-6 (b) What are the shortfalls in the health care delivery systems at secondary and tertiary care level ?[7+8]

Q-6 (c) what are the boundaries and parts of oral cavity? Enumerate various factors predisposing to oral cancers. Briefly enumerate the assessment and treatment of a patient with ulceroproliferative growth involving anterior 2/3 of the tongue. [4+3+8]

Q-7 (a) what are various types and causes of nipple discharge in a female? How would you examine, investigate and treat a patient with large 6 cm breast tumour with mobile axillary lymph nodes in the axilla ? [4+16]

Q-7 (b) What methods can be used for permanent sterilization of a 32 year old female having 2 children? How is laparoscopic sterilization superior to tubectomy ? [10+5]

Q-7 (c) Discuss the role of Information, Education and Communication systems (IEC) in the management of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).[5+5+5]

Q-8 (a) What do you understand by Expanded Programme of Immunisation(EPI) ? Describe its components. [10+10]

Q-8 (b) What is the difference in clinical presentation of right and left sided colonic cancers? Enumerate various factors predisposing to colonic cancers and briefly outline the management of a patient with caecal carcinoma.      [4+4+7]

Q-8 (c) Define accidental haemorrhage. How would you manage a woman at 34 weeks of pregnancy, who comes to casualty with history of painful bout of bleeding ? Mention the foetal and maternal complications associated with accidental haemorrhage. [3+6+6]